Hope in the right place.. So I've loadbalancer(LB) and two Apaches(A1 & A2) underneath. All of them have public IPs. Now my question is; Client requests a website -> request goes to LB -> requets goes to A1. Now I think response goes the same way back trough LB. So with A1 & A2, LB generates output traffic of both Apaches? Is tha correct, or can I force response directly from Apache (A1 or A2) without touching LB for outbound traffic?
Some insight would be grat, tnx.