I have a netgear FVX538 firwall/gateway, 20mbps optic fibre link connected to WAN1, no connection on WAN2 and a link which I suppose to be a 2mbps MPLS line into a Cisco 1841 and in turn connected to one of the eight 10/100 LAN ports on the FVX538.
I thought that having the MPLS line means VPN connections i.e. between local LAN 192.168.3.x and remote LAN 192.168.2.x go through that 2mbps line instead of the 20mbps optic fibre link. In other words, packets switch into that 10/100 port.
However, in the web interface of FVX538, it has a VPN configuration. Amongst the various settings, it requires me to set the local client and remote host IP. For local, the choices must be either WAN1 or WAN2 or some fixed IP visible to the WAN. It is currently set to WAN1.
It confuses me as to which line the VPN connnections were actually going through, or if they were interdependent. Anyone can enlighten me please? Or, maybe the 2mbps line should actually be connected to WAN2?
Before we had the 20mbps optic fibre link, our WAN1 was an ADSL 10mbps/768kpbs. At that time, our video conferencing was choppy and disconnect frequently. The ADSL WAN1 was blamed and thus it was upgraded. The video conferencing goes by SIP and we connect to 192.168.2.X or 192.168.3.x (depending which side is calling). If I were correct, we should instead upgrade the 2mbps, not the ADSL.
Question is, am I correct?