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Our customer has about 10 different offices.

Head office has a router which maintains IPSec VPN connections to all of the site.

Each site has their own IP range, eg..

192.168.50.x
192.168.60.x
192.168.70.x

What we want to do is connect a router at our office to their head office site via VPN.

Once we have done this, should we have access to all of the other sites connected to the head office?

We've managed to get the VPN connected, but at present can only seem to ping/connect to head office's router and computers.

Is this a configuration thing, or are we using the wrong type of VPN?

I know with a PPTP VPN we would be able to access the entire network, but the head office router does not support PPTP.

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2 Answers 2

It's likely you just need to add the appropriate routes and firewall rules to permit traffic between your remote sites. That step in the process is frequently overlooked.

For the record, the same steps would be necessary with any other VPN technology.

Edit: to clarify, each site's router needs to know what traffic it should send through the IPsec tunnel (instead of dropping it or sending it via its default route).

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The router's firewall is disabled (was already like that), but when you say add the appropriate routes are you talking about static routes? –  NoPyGod Apr 27 '12 at 2:48
    
Yes, each site's router needs to know what traffic it should send through the IPsec tunnel (instead of dropping it or sending it via its default route). –  EEAA Apr 27 '12 at 2:50

Yeah, each remote site will need routes added to all the other networks pointing back to the central office.

The central office then will have a route added to each of the VPN connections back to the various offices. Then everything should work fine.

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