We have a new MPLS service and I'm having trouble getting it to work (it seems like a routing issue). It's a T3 with two circuits: a public wan port and a private MPLS circuit connecting 2 sites. Each site has its own subnet and a gateway router before the MPLS endpoint. The carrier assures me that the MPLS link is working correctly.
subnet 192.168.2.0 gateway 192.168.2.1 MPLS gateway 192.168.2.254 WAN iface 216.xxx.xxx.xxx
On the carrier's router facing me are 2 ports:
WAN (public internet) port is connected to my gateway's WAN port
MPLS port is plugged into a port on the ethernet switch behind my gateway (actually, it's the builtin 8port switch on the gateway)
Site B: configured exactly the same except the subnet is different..
subnet 192.168.1.0 gateway 192.168.1.1 MPLS gateway 192.168.1.254 WAN iface 209.xxx.xxx.xxx
dest 0.0.0.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 216.xxx.xxx.xxx iface WAN1 dest 192.168.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.2.254 hop 2 iface LAN
dest 0.0.0.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 209.xxx.xxx.xxx iface wan1 dest 192.168.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.1.254 hop 2 iface LAN
Any node on site A can ping 192.168.2.254 AND .1.254 but NOT any other IP on the .1.0 subnet
Any node on site B can ping 192.168.1.254 but NOT .2.254 OR any IP on the .2.0 subnet
Internet traffic is fine in both locations.
I feel like I have my fundamentals right, but I'm not making any progress. Did I miss something important? Or am I asking it to do something it should not be able to do?