9

Our systems cannot send e-mail to a company that has no MX record. There is an SMTP server running on their IP address and they are able to get e-mail from gmail. Is it normal for mail systems to try to connect to a SMTP server at the A record when there is no MX?

Improve this question

2 Answers 2

Reset to default
10

Yes it is standard, per RFC 5321. Please see the Wikipedia page on MX Records

Improve this answer
1
  • 1
    and it has been standard ever since RFC 821 too. This also means that if you don't have MX records and insist on having a website without the 'www' prefix then that server will get inbound SMTP attempts too :(
    – Alnitak
    Jan 27, 2010 at 0:53
0

Normally yes, if no MX record exists, the A record should be used as a failsafe.

Improve this answer
1
  • 6
    It's not a "failsafe". Originally mail was delivered to hosts (via A records) and then MX records were invented to say "actually, send it somewhere else instead...".
    – Alnitak
    Jan 27, 2010 at 0:54

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .