I know this question has been asked many a times here. But i want to gain certain perspective here.

I have enabled VPN on certain systems and then can access remote system using rdp. However they can access the remote system without rdp as well. Is this because all these systems are in same lan group? How can i ensure that rdp works only when connected to vpn? I am looking at one vpn system and people should log into that system and then connect to vpn and then access remote system using rdp. I know that this can be achieved but i am not sure how to go about it. please guide me

  • Can you provide more detail, do you have a firewall in front of the LAN? Is the VPN a physical appliance, or software on a server? Nov 7 '13 at 9:47
  • vpn is the windows software on the developers machine using which we want to rdp to the server
    – shiva
    Nov 7 '13 at 9:59

You should be filtering access to RDP at the firewall level. When a user connects to the VPN, it should be assigned a LAN address. Add the LAN subnet to the white list on the firewall for the Windows Server, port 3389. Deny everything else.

  • this holds good if we have a stand alone pc with windows vpn installed in it right?
    – shiva
    Nov 7 '13 at 10:00
  • Correct, thought you may need to just whitelist the developer PC's IP addy, depending on the config. Nov 7 '13 at 10:12
  • i created a vpn(network sharing new vpn connection) on my system and assigned an ip address(ipv4) and also assigned preffered and alternative ip address. i wasnot able to connect to vpn(i was thinking of using this ip in the inbound rule for rdp port on server). but on selecting obtain the ip dynamically i was able to connect to vpn. generally without vpn i am able to do an rdp with my remote machine.. hope i am not confusing you with what i said above
    – shiva
    Nov 7 '13 at 10:50
  • @shiva - The VPN server has to be configured to allow the VPN client to specify it's own ip address if you want to do it that way.
    – joeqwerty
    Nov 7 '13 at 21:10

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