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Lets assume we have two local networks: 192.168.1.0/24 (Malasia) & 192.168.2.0/24 (Germany). And there is a VPN (10.10.10.0/24) server on host 192.168.2.1 with some public IP 52.52.52.52. Also we have a VPN client 192.168.1.5, so it has been assigned an IP: 10.10.10.2.

As I understand: every VPN client can ping any VPN resource/other_clients by its VPN IP (10.10.10.X) How does it works? For 192.168.1.0/24 we do not involve some dedicated public IPs. But we still can reach thous machines which under VPN. Does it some kind of NAT that allow web servers to respond to clients bihind the NAT? And do we need support from providers/routers to maintain the address translation for VPN traffic? VPN Passthrough?

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VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates an IP Tunnel between server and client. It can run over the Internet as long as they Client can reach the Server. Dedicated IP on Client side is not required.

When the tunnel is established, all the traffic is encapsulated in IP Packets. For Clients and Servers, it looks as if they are directly connected each other, hence the name Virtual Private Network. There is no need for NAT, so no translation is needed. Depending on your ISP, you may or may not need VPN Passthrough. Most ISP do not block VPNs, but if one does, you may have to ask them for VPN Passthrough.

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